My friend had a Reloaded Die on the table. I, as a Thief on my turn, announced I was going going to attempt to steal it, discarded a card, and rolled a 5. He then tried to override my roll, changing it to a 1, using the very same Reloaded Die I had just stolen.
We debated, and in the end I won out, arguing that because I had stolen it uppon the successful die roll, the card was "instantly" no longer his to play, so he couldn't use it.
His contention was that, because the reloaded die says that it may be used after another player has rolled the die "for any reason" that would include the situation of having that very card stolen - basically that there should be some lee-time between my die roll, and me taking possession of the card.
Which is right?
We debated, and in the end I won out, arguing that because I had stolen it uppon the successful die roll, the card was "instantly" no longer his to play, so he couldn't use it.
His contention was that, because the reloaded die says that it may be used after another player has rolled the die "for any reason" that would include the situation of having that very card stolen - basically that there should be some lee-time between my die roll, and me taking possession of the card.
Which is right?
Thief's "theft" vs. Reloaded Die conundrum
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